Another provocative question from Fandango!
“Is morality objective or is it subjective? If you believe it’s objective, what is its source. If you believe it’s subjective, how do you know whose concept of morality is correct?
Morality, by definition has to be objective, though in some cases it can be subjective at a cultural level.
The basic definition of morality is that it is a system of distinguishing between right and wrong. Any action which is right has to be right on the absolute principles. A wrong has to be wrong as considered by all people. If something is right for me, it cannot be wrong for another and vise versa. There is an inbuilt moral compass in all the human beings which tell right apart from wrong. A small child knows when it has done something wrong and would try to hide it. Our compass gets corrupted as we grow into adults in a society when moral values are askew due to our own interpretation of what is right and what is wrong. So as far as absolutes are concerned, morality is objective.
However there are different cultural values in different societies concerning, the social aspects. These differ from one culture to another. It would include modes of behavior which are acceptable in a culture but frowned upon in another. For example the social norms that are prevalent in western societies are different then those in some eastern cultures. So what is acceptable for the people from one culture can be unacceptable for those from other societies.
The judge of behavior always has to be one’s own self. But based on what the inner compass is indicating.
That is my take on morality. Your’s may be different, so take up this FPQ and share your views.